Path: utzoo!attcan!uunet!ginosko!brutus.cs.uiuc.edu!apple!usc!merlin.usc.edu!nunki.usc.edu!jeenglis From: jeenglis@nunki.usc.edu (Joe English) Newsgroups: comp.lang.c++ Subject: Grammar question Summary: How different is C++ - extensions from C? Message-ID: <5426@merlin.usc.edu> Date: 30 Sep 89 18:51:52 GMT Sender: news@merlin.usc.edu Reply-To: jeenglis@nunki.usc.edu (Joe English) Distribution: na Organization: University of Southern California, Los Angeles, CA Lines: 22 It's come up recently in comp.lang.c that ' (a && b) = 1' is illegal not because 'a && b' isn't semantically an lvalue, but because the *grammar* is used to determine lvalueness. I'm assuming that this isn't the case in C++, since class_of_a::operator && might return a reference. So my question is, is the C++ grammar, minus the C++ extensions, different from the C grammar in any way that would change the meaning of any expression? That's probably an intractable problem; a better question would be "What other differences are there between the two grammars, and are any of them significant?" --Joe English jeenglis@nunki.usc.edu