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From: rlr@pyuxd.UUCP (Rich Rosen)
Newsgroups: net.religion.jewish
Subject: Re: 2 Questions
Message-ID: <1769@pyuxd.UUCP>
Date: Sun, 22-Sep-85 20:22:18 EDT
Article-I.D.: pyuxd.1769
Posted: Sun Sep 22 20:22:18 1985
Date-Received: Mon, 23-Sep-85 02:59:03 EDT
References: <3780094@csd2.UUCP>
Organization: Whatever we're calling ourselves this week
Lines: 20

> Rosh haShanah is a two day rosh hodesh.  Why is it not the last day of
> the previous month and the first day of the current month like all
> other two day ra'shei hodesh?
> 
> If Ro'sh ha Shanah is really only one day, shouldn't one be able to
> cook during the first half for the second half?  [MARTILLO]

It's the fault of vusvus Asheknazim using Western calendars.

Isn't that the answer you wanted?

(My understanding is that this IS a custom dealing with the fact that Jews
are all over the world, and it is spread out over two days so that the
entire first day of Tishrei (as experienced in Israel's time zone) will
be celebrated as the "new year" throughout the rest of the world.  That is
how it was explained to me long ago.  But of course, I'm a know nothing
vusvus...)
-- 
"Wait a minute.  '*WE*' decided???   *MY* best interests????"
					Rich Rosen    ihnp4!pyuxd!rlr