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From: smb@ulysses.UUCP (Steven Bellovin)
Newsgroups: net.audio
Subject: Re: nut.audio:  The \"ear\" vs. \"the instrument\"
Message-ID: <1113@ulysses.UUCP>
Date: Sat, 28-Sep-85 18:18:06 EDT
Article-I.D.: ulysses.1113
Posted: Sat Sep 28 18:18:06 1985
Date-Received: Sun, 29-Sep-85 08:31:34 EDT
References: <568@decwrl.UUCP>
Organization: AT&T Bell Laboratories, Murray Hill
Lines: 27

It's quite conceivable that there are audible differences between sound
systems that we're not currently measuring.  (That they are, if
understood, measurable, is beyond debate, I'd say, though there's no
guarantee that such a measurement could come up with a single number
like THD.)  The real question is whether or not the "golden ears" are
actually hearing something.  I'm dubious for several reasons:

	a) double-blind tests reveal little or no difference.  I'm not
	   insisting on rapid-switching tests a la abcd[12], but some sort
	   of controlled test is essential.
	b) many golden-ears denigrate or deny the power of the placebo effect.
	   It's been well-demonstrated; indeed, the purely physiological
	   effects of inert pills has been demonstrated many times.  The
	   placebo effect is the main reason I insist on blind tests.
	c) nonsensical physical theories are often propounded to explain
	   purported (or real) differences.  The ad excerpt Andy Koenig
	   posted a few days ago for "CD-compatible cables" is a good
	   example.  Before I give any credibility to a report of a new
	   effect, I want one of three conditions:  1) an
	   objectively-measureable difference; 2) a subjectively-
	   demonstrated difference under well-controlled conditions; or
	   3) a plausible physical theory to explain the effect.
	   Nonsense tends to put me off, and perhaps causes me to
	   disregard subjective reports that deserve more credit.
	d) the rhetoric used in the debate is totally out of bounds.  I
	   trust that most of us would agree that we're arguing about a
	   fairly small difference.