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From: yiri@ucf-cs.UUCP (Yirmiyahu BenDavid)
Newsgroups: net.religion
Subject: Re: Yiri's Last Stand
Message-ID: <1553@ucf-cs.UUCP>
Date: Sun, 7-Oct-84 16:38:00 EDT
Article-I.D.: ucf-cs.1553
Posted: Sun Oct  7 16:38:00 1984
Date-Received: Wed, 10-Oct-84 02:53:28 EDT
References: <1539@ucf-cs.UUCP>, <203@umcp-cs.UUCP>, <197@usfbobo.UUCP>
Organization: UCF, Orlando, FL
Lines: 26

Since there seems to be a valid misunderstanding of why I make a point
of transliterations. I will explain this point (it is the only point
made which I deem worthy of further elucidation).

Within the articles, I showed the difference between the N'tzarim (who
were Jewish) and the Roman/pagan Christians who subsequently took over
the movement and perverted it into their own idea of what the 'true'
religion should be. I also pointed out that they were diametrically
different regarding the Torah (nomian vs. antinomian). I further pointed
out that they were so vastly different that the Christians persecuted
and killed the N'tzarim who would not forsake Judaism and go to 'church'
on Sunday instead of synagogue on Shabbat, who would not eat pork on
the way out after 'Easter' services, etc. 

It seemed painfully clear to me why it would be necessary to distinguish
between these two groups if one ever hoped to understand either of them.
Further, it seemed an obvious step to use the N'tzarim transliterations
to denote the authentic N'tzarim things and the Christianized terms to
denote the Christianized things in order to differentiate between them
and keep track of which group one is really talking about. 

The popular practice, so vociferously defended on this net, promulgates
the muddling of the two groups and precludes any in depth understanding
of either. If you don't really know which you are talking about you are
surely not going to come up with anything which clarifies either group.